Lydbury Language Forum

General => Language Questions => Topic started by: zhonglc_2016 on July 12, 2019, 06:36:31 pm

Title: others would do (to) you
Post by: zhonglc_2016 on July 12, 2019, 06:36:31 pm
Hello all,

1. Always do to others as you would be done by.
2. Therefore, whatever you want others to do for you, do also the same for them, for this is the Law and the Prophets.
3. In everything, therefore, treat people the same way you want them to treat you, for this is the Law and the Prophets.

I've googled out many variants of the sentence 1.

I was wondering if the following structure could be possible for 1?
4. Always do to others as you would be done by others.
Must "done by" be regarded as a set phrase here?
If I attach "others" to the end of the sentence, then the section after "as" goes parallel with the beginning part.
And it reads,
5. Always do to others as others would do [ ] you.
6. Always do to others as others would do to you.

Yes, I've noticed that the active voice form of 4 is, strictly, 5 instead of 6.
(I wonder if it is true: if 5 doesn't work, then neither does 4)

What do you think of 4, 5, 6?


Many many thanks.


 
Title: Re: others would do (to) you
Post by: admin on July 12, 2019, 08:29:36 pm
Always do to others as you would be done to by others.

5 and 6 don't work - as you would like others to do to you.
Title: Re: others would do (to) you
Post by: zhonglc_2016 on July 13, 2019, 12:02:37 am
So 4 doesn't, does it?

Thank you, Duncan.

------------------------
You didn't say 4 doesn't, so it does.
That would seem to me in "Always do to others as you would be done 'to' by others",  “to” is dispensable. Am I right?
Title: Re: others would do (to) you
Post by: admin on July 13, 2019, 11:10:05 am
No: it doesn't.
Title: Re: others would do (to) you
Post by: zhonglc_2016 on July 13, 2019, 12:20:31 pm
Got it. Many thanks again.