Author Topic: for him to lose  (Read 211 times)

Offline navi

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for him to lose
« on: January 14, 2021, 01:01:29 am »
1) It would be good for him to lose.
2) For him to lose would be good.

Can both these sentences have both of these meanings:

a) It would be a good thing if he loses.
b) It would be good thing for him if he loses. He would benefit from losing.

I think that for '2' to have meaning 'b' we would need a comma after 'him'. I think '1' is ambiguous.


Gratefully
Navi

Offline admin

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Re: for him to lose
« Reply #1 on: January 14, 2021, 09:42:28 am »
#2 is not natural. #1 could mean either a or b but b is more likely. The context is so important.
Best wishes,

Duncan